Hi All,
I have a house that I purchased in 2004 and have lived in as my main residence since then. I plan to move overseas later this year to work full time, and Im considering the tax implications as the property value has increased quite a bit.
I've checked the ATO website and found two seemingly conflicting messages. The first is where they explain how to obtain a full exemption from CGT:
"To obtain full exemption from CGT:
1. the dwelling must have been your home for the whole period you owned it
2. the dwelling must not have been used to produce assessable income, and
3. any land on which the dwelling is situated must be two hectares or less. "
My understanding of that ATO website quote is that when I move and begin to rent out my house, it will then not be CGT exempt, as I will not fullfil the first two criteria.
To confirm this I tried their CGT property exemption tool. I plugged in a hypothetical property sale date of 2010. The results told me that if I sold it in 2010, it would be CGT exempt even though I would have been renting it out and earning a taxable income for 2 years. That seems to contradict the above quote.
Does anyone have any advice they can offer, or easily understandable websites they can point me to? Considering that my property probably wont go up much over the next few years Im not too unhappy if I have to sell it to avoid paying some of the gains I have already made out as CGT.
Hope this makes sense and thanks in advance for any help.
